Is the above statement true or false?
2007-10-17 10:51:02 · 5 answers · asked by Pinsir003 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
yes, this is a trick question...
2007-10-17 10:58:19 · update #1
Yes... It is true...
0! = 1
and 2-1 = 1
2007-10-17 10:55:18 · answer #1 · answered by sayamiam 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do you mean 0 factorial (0!) ?
If so the statement is true becaue 0! = 1
The special case 0! is defined to have value 1, consistent with the combinatorial interpretation of there being exactly one way to arrange zero objects (i.e., there is a single permutation of zero elements, namely the empty set ).
2007-10-17 10:57:17 · answer #2 · answered by Puzzling 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Interestingly enough, the way you wrote it is true,
2-1=0!
2-1 = 1, 0! ("Zero Factorial")=1
1=1
True
2007-10-17 10:55:41 · answer #3 · answered by Mr. me 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
False. Is this a trick question?
2007-10-17 10:56:47 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
what do you think??]
true duhhhh.
^^^^^^
jk.
false UHDUH
naaaa jk.
srsly its s tru statement 0! equalzzzz 1
2007-10-17 10:54:58 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋