2007-10-17 09:49:33 · 4 answers · asked by Xploding Pineapple 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Astronomy & Space
I need a full answer
2007-10-17 10:01:29 · update #1
Because your eyes are evolved to see at daytime and they are not sensitive enough to see all the radiation that comes from the universe. If your eyes were the size of the Keck telescope or if you could see microwaves, the sky would look anything but black.
So in short: it's your own "fault" that you can't see. There is plenty of light there.
;-)
Regarding Olbers' paradox... the Wikipedia entry is missing an important piece, which I would pick as the most natural solution to the paradox in an observed-infinite universe: violation of energy conservation. I don't know why it is not discussed, probably because when the paradox went the way of the Dodo with observation of a finite visible universe, energy conservation was still more of a dogma among those who cared about it than it would be today. But violation of energy conservation is absolutely not a taboo in modern physics and should never have been to anyone who was serious about discussing the topic.
Today we are testing for it all the time and an infinite universe plus Olbers' Paradox must put a very nice lower bound in it for visible photons. Maybe one should do some physical archeology and see where that argument went?
2007-10-17 10:57:08 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
A very old question. It is Olbers paradox. See the source.
2007-10-17 17:15:15 · answer #2 · answered by campbelp2002 7 · 5⤊ 0⤋
Because there is a lack of light.
2007-10-17 16:53:36 · answer #3 · answered by Tom W 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because light is not being reflected on it.
2007-10-17 16:54:09 · answer #4 · answered by skwonripken 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋