i play high school baseball and today our coach gave us this problem to figure out....he said it is possible but not one player could figure out after 50 minutes of pondering and he wont tel us the answer...can anyone figure it out...and it cant involve baulks
2007-10-17 09:45:09 · 11 answers · asked by dullesbaseball5 2 in Sports ➔ Baseball
Yes a pitcher can. Actually the pitcher can throw a complete game/perfect game without ever throwing a pitch for 9 innings. Allow me to explain:
A batter is out for illegal action when he steps from one batter’s box to the other while the pitcher is in position ready to pitch.
If this were to happen 27 times for each team the pitchers would get credit for a complete game (a perfect game for that matter) without throwing a pitch. If it then started to rain heavily after 9 innings the game could be declared a 0 to 0 tie with no actual pitches thrown.
Interesting question and most people would never know the answer. This is technically the only way a complete 9 inning game can be completed with less then 27 pitches.
Hope that helps.
2007-10-17 09:52:20 · answer #1 · answered by AJAMMER69 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋
In 1991, the Committee for Statistical Accuracy (or as Chip calls 'InAccuracy') determined that a no-hitter is a complete game nine innings or more. If a hit was given up in the 12th inning (Harvey Haddux's perfect game), it is no longer counted. Also, games where the home team is winning and the pitcher doesn't go out for the bottom of the ninth do not count anymore, nor any game called after the fifth inning due to rain or other conditions.
2016-05-23 04:54:25 · answer #2 · answered by freeda 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not that this would ever happen, but here's a scenario where they could do it with nine pitches:
Rule 8.04 states that a pitcher must pitch within 12 seconds of receiving the ball from the catcher. If he doesn't, then the umpire could penalize him by calling a ball. If this happened four times, the batter gets a walk. The pitcher does this twice, then throws a pitch and has the batter hit into a triple play. That's repeated for each inning, making it nine pitches for nine innings. Would never happen, but it's possible.
The same "ball" rule also applies if a pitcher goes to his mouth, so that scenario too could be used.
2007-10-17 10:01:01 · answer #3 · answered by Craig S 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
The problem revolves around getting a runner on base without an official pitch. Doing that twice in an inning and getting a triple play each inning.
However, picked of doesn't count as a pitch either, so if you could find a way to get a runner on without a pitch, (I'm thinking catcher's interference), then you could theoretically get everyone on via that way and pick them all off.
2007-10-17 09:54:31 · answer #4 · answered by brettj666 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
In high school baseball, can't you intentionally walk someone by just telling the umpire you want an intentional walk? Two of those and a triple play on the first pitch of each inning would do it. That is probably not the answer you coach was looking for, but it is something.
I am curious what the answer is, so when you find out, let us know. Thanks.
2007-10-17 09:51:45 · answer #5 · answered by cubswin03 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
there are certain things to consider like do intentional walk pitches count as pitches? if not then intentionally walk 2 players each inning and then have someone ground into a triple play each inning. if players can reach on some type of catchers interference before a pitch is even thrown then it can maybee also be done somehow.
2007-10-17 09:51:13 · answer #6 · answered by Doug Bies 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Leadoff batter hits a triple on the first pitch. PITCHES = 1
Second batter comes up and before the pitcher pitches, the runner on third breaks for home. Pitcher tries to catch him stealing but the batter interferes with the throw home. Batter is called out and runner is sent back to third. PITCHES = 1, OUTS = 1
Third batter comes up and same thing happens, runner breaks for home and batter interferes with the pitch. Same thing with the fourth batter. Inning over with 1 PITCH.
Second inning batter leads off with a triple and same thing happens. Repeat for 9 innings and you have 9 PITCHES.
2007-10-17 10:09:55 · answer #7 · answered by Rocky 2 · 2⤊ 2⤋
no, use math there are 3 outs per inning and 27 outs in one game the pitcher needs at least 3 pitches per inning for 9 innings to win the game...
2007-10-17 09:59:33 · answer #8 · answered by abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyz.....? 3 · 0⤊ 3⤋
its not possible to get 3 outs on one pitch, unless theres a thriple play..which would evole at least 3 pitches in order for there to be the 3 baserunners...
the least amount of pitches in a complete game is 27
2007-10-17 09:50:34 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
no because there are 3 outs and u pitch 3 outs each inning so 9x3=27 pitches so no
2007-10-17 09:49:40 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋