In order to vote, you must be a citizen of the United States. If you are born in the states you learn English in school, and if you come here from another country you must learn to read and speak English before becoming a citizen. Therefore, if every eligible voter should be able to speak English, why are ballots available in Spanish?
2007-10-17 08:46:41 · 6 answers · asked by sarah 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Elections
Because our corrupt politicians are giving our country away for the sake of votes. This is also the reason why only people from certain parts of the world are held to the immigration and citizenship laws. The mexicans and those sneaking in from South America are arriving in such large numbers, are the ones getting the benefit of the politicians looking the other way, and allowing them to enter without legal status.
2007-10-17 08:58:58 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 2⤋
The level of fluency necessary to pass the Naturalization Test is far, far lower than that necessary to understand even the most basic ballot questions. In fact, the test is specifically designed to be understandable to people who are not yet fluent in English. Aside from that, there is no other requirement to prove fluency in English, just that you can understand the naturalization test.
This means, as a matter of course, that there will be new citizens who don't yet understand complex English. But they still have a Constitutionally guaranteed right to vote. That's why the multiple versions.
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RacerX, if the population of any of those groups is high enough in a particular area, they DO print ballots in their languages. And if there isn't a version available, the voter has the right to have an interpreter if they need one. It's cheaper to print multiple versions of ballots than it is to hire a bunch of interpreters.
2007-10-17 09:13:04 · answer #2 · answered by skeptik 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
The same reason Democrats don't think anyone should have to show I.D. before they vote: Because they need more voters!
Here's another funny for you: HIllary is seeking to return "voter's rights" to convicted felons. Ever wonder why???
In a nutshell, it's hypocracy at it's finest. If you think it should be written in Spanish because it's "fair", then you better have it written in every other dialect as well, or you're simply favoring one culture over another.
Why not have French Ballots, Chineese Ballots, Turkish Ballots Portuguese Ballots, etc, etc. Gotta love the hypocrits of the left...LOL!
Or is it that Democrats think Mexicans are too stupid to learn English?
Pathetic, really...
2007-10-17 09:06:01 · answer #3 · answered by RacerX 4 · 3⤊ 2⤋
Because some people, citizens or not, still speak Spanish as their primary language. Also, you can be born here and be a citizen, and if your parents spoke little English and you did not do well in school, you might still struggle with English. Face it: a large amount of people are bi-lingual and speak Spanish here. It's a fact. If they are citizens, then they have a right to be able to read the ballot clearly. Many of them read Spanish better than a lot of Americans read English, so we really can't be critical.
2007-10-17 08:55:24 · answer #4 · answered by Mr. Taco 7 · 1⤊ 4⤋
#one million : To advertise waste of tax payer cash #two: So that illegals who're allowed to take the citizenship examination in Spanish can vote :) I can wager you didn't understand #two. Isn't this essentially the most unusual politically right international we are living in. For individuals like Bush Dear who forget about our regulations and rules: "Language Applicants for naturalization have got to be in a position to learn, write, talk, and fully grasp phrases in natural utilization within the English language. Applicants exempt from this requirement are individuals who at the date of submitting: had been dwelling within the United States next to a lawful admission for everlasting house for intervals totaling 15 years or extra and are over fifty five years of age; had been dwelling within the United States next to a lawful admission for everlasting house for intervals totaling two decades or extra and are over 50 years of age; or have a medically determinable bodily or intellectual impairment, wherein the impairment influences the applicant’s capacity to be trained English." Please Note the phrase "lawful" for exemptions, this exemption isn't for individuals who've entered the nation illegally.
2016-09-05 13:11:06 · answer #5 · answered by ? 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
There is no reason for them to be. That is wrong.
2007-10-17 08:51:10 · answer #6 · answered by satcomgrunt 7 · 3⤊ 2⤋