2007-10-17 05:06:22 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
because of the suspense it creates. Whilst we know what's going to happen, we do not know when or how. We go through the whole play understanding it more, because we see how everyone's actions lead towards the deaths of the main charachters. It doesn't give away the whole plot, it just tells you what will happen in the end, so that you focus on why (and the message of the play) more.
2007-10-17 05:16:20 · answer #1 · answered by Kit Fang 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I guess it's like going to the cinema. You know the bad guys are going to get beaten by the good guys, the good guy will get the girl etc. etc., but you still watch the film.
With Romeo and Juliet you already know it's going to end badly for the star-crossed lovers.
It gives you, the audience, a feeling of superiority over the characters in that you know how it is going to turn out, and you are drawn into the play because you want to know *how* it gets to where it's going - you know the destination, but it's the journey - or the performance - that you're along for.
2007-10-17 05:17:48 · answer #2 · answered by xzerix 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well...most people were aware of the plot when they read the story. It's common in even today's plays / novels to give the reader a "hook" or a reason to read the story. Love stories are traditionally happy endings, so I would think that Shakespere wanted people to understand that this wasn't your typical love story. And to search for a reason why they would persue this kind of 'true love' when it was doomed from the start.
2007-10-17 05:23:04 · answer #3 · answered by Miss Sunshine 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Like many of Shakespeare's plays, he wanted to give the audience a summary of what was to come. This was maybe to get the audience to wonder, as in the play of Romeo and Juliet, why did Romeo and Juliet kill themselves? What happened? How did they meet? etc.
2007-10-17 08:25:16 · answer #4 · answered by Angelily 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
All of Shakespeare's plays were based on existing historic or literary works. He figured the audience were already familiar with the tale. It's like doing a story set int he Civil War era that starts by telling you the North wins and Lincoln gets killed.
2007-10-17 05:09:39 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Today the question is, "did he write Romeo and Juliet?"
Many very learned men are not so sure.
2007-10-17 05:16:21 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because he was entertaining an intelligent audience with a proper attention-span wanting entertainment, rather than a shower of modern-day, Americanised, Heat-reading teenagers looking for an excuse not to bother paying attention.
2007-10-17 05:12:42 · answer #7 · answered by Hugo Fitch 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
i think of its because of the fact in shakespearean situations if performs have been to bypass on for a protracted time those human beings observing who have been status up did no longer prefer to stand for a protracted time except it grew to become right into a play with a magnificent tale or plot. So by skill of letting the objective marketplace be attentive to that something tragic and exciting could take place it meant the objective marketplace could play. as quickly as I did rome and juliet final 3 hundred and sixty 5 days at school i think of thatswhat my english instructor advised us yet i could be incorrect xx
2016-10-12 23:04:37 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why did "Love Story" start with Oliver on the bench in the park, asking, "What can you say about a 25-year-old girl who died?"
It's just another way of presenting something.
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2007-10-17 05:09:54 · answer #9 · answered by girlwhowasadoptedin49or50ithink 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
like most of shakespeare's plays, r&j are based on historic fact. everyone knows the story, shakespeare just put it on paper.
2007-10-17 05:10:18 · answer #10 · answered by Kevin G 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋