English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I would like to ask anyone why the terms can be implied in thefollowing circumstances about the custom and trade usage?
Furthermore, I would like to know that the British Crane Hire Corp Ltd V Ipswich Plant Hire Ltd case in 1974, could anyone give me in this case, thank you very much.

2007-10-16 22:29:14 · 1 answers · asked by Angel Paul 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

1 answers

The basic idea is that if the contract is not specific about certain terms -- either the contract is considered defective and void -- or the court will allow the parties to fill in terms.

And for contracts between merchants -- industry custom and standard trade usage is how most things happen -- so it keeps contracts flowing smoothly to allow those assumptions.

2007-10-20 10:50:33 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers