Why in divided fractions is the last fraction reversed and multiplied.?

Question

You know what I mean...................

I'm sure this this will be a d'oh answer.

Answer 1

Suppose you had 8 ÷ (1/2):-
It is permissable to multiply this by 1 without changing its value and 1 may be written as 2 / 2:-
8 / (1/2) = [ 8 / (1/2) ] x (2 / 2) = 16 / 1 = 16
This answer could have been obtained by inverting 1/2 and multiplying.

Similarly with two fractions:-
(1/2) / (1/4) = (1/2) x (4/1) = 2

Answer 2

It's because that procedure gives the right answer.

We can check this by trying an example. We know that 5 divided by 2 = 2 1/2. We could re-write 5 divided by 2 as fractions (5/1 divided by 2/1). If we turn the second "fraction" over and multiply, the sum becomes 5/1 X 1/2, which makes (5 x 1)/(1 x 2), that is, 5 over 2, which is 2 and a half.

Sorry I can't type fractions. The oblique strokes (forward slashes) are instead of the horizontal lines of fractions, so 2 1/2 means two and a half.

Answer 3

Because that's the equation that makes the answer come out correctly. If you don't reverse the last fraction you make it a multiplication instead of division problem.

Answer 4

2/3(3x/4+a million)=a million/2 you need to do away with the denominator by ability of multiplying each little thing on the two aspects by ability of a effortless one anticipate that 12 is the effortless denominator 8(9x+a million)=6 72x+8=6 72x=-2 x=-2/72x=-a million/36 2nd equation (x-3/5) +2 = (x+4/6). multiply the two aspects by ability of 30 30x-18+60=30x+20 40 two=20??? unusual equation

Answer 5

Because multiplication is the opposite of division.

Answer 6

why is
(a/b)/(c/d) = (a/b)*((d/c) = (ad)/(bc)???

umm

Here is why

note that (c/d)*(d/c) =1

Multiplying anything by 1 won't change that thing.

(a/b)/(c/d) can be written as

by multiplying the numerator and the denominator by (d/c) , we get

{(a/b)(d/c)}/{(c/d)*(d/c)}
you can see that the denominator is just one
The expression becomes

{(a/b)(d/c)}/1 = (a/b)(c/d)

That is why we do it that way

Answer 7

It's the rule, it's called a reciprocal.

Unless you want to get the answer right, just do it.

Answer 8

Because multiplication is the inverse of division. You can validate the answer yourself:

(x/y)/(w/z):

the multiplicative inverse of (w/z) = (z/w)
(i.e. (w/z) * (z/w) = 1)

so (x/y)/(w/z) = [(x/y) * (z/w)]/[(w/z) * (z/w)]
= [(x/y) * (z/w)]/1 = (x/y)*(z/w)

Answer 9

its in the rule... it will just have the same answer if you solve it using the calculator. or manually by reversing the 2nd fraction and multiply!
duh!