2007-10-16 09:03:39 · 2 answers · asked by Dale G 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Taxes ➔ India
Little more info then the first poster
Amendment 16.
The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several states, and without regard to any census or enumeration.
US Code 26 AKA the IRS Code. People forget congress passes the US Code, not IRS.
http://www.access.gpo.gov/uscode/title26...
Since congress passes US Code and they have the right to tax according to Amendment 16 (which has been upheld by the Supreme Court). Code 26 gives them the right to use IRS to collect taxes.
The United States Code is the codification by subject matter of the general and permanent laws of the United States. ie the code is law.
http://origin.www.gpoaccess.gov/uscode/
2007-10-16 09:11:50 · answer #1 · answered by financing_loans 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
For the second time today......
Title 26: Internal Revenue Code
http://www4.law.cornell.edu/uscode/html/uscode26/usc_sup_01_26.html
2007-10-16 09:06:49 · answer #2 · answered by Wayne Z 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋