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note here P2 is p square .

2007-10-16 08:26:00 · 3 answers · asked by ismailmn_1 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

Call your group G, with |G| = p² (for some prime p). Cauchy's theorem tells us that some element g in G whose order is p.

is a subgroup of G of order p. By the Sylow theorems, it's the only such subgroup, in fact.

Because || is half |G|, we know it is a subgroup (normal even). Importantly, it's a maximal subgroup - no maximal subgroup can be the center of the group, and no group divisible by a single prime can have a trivial center.

The center Z(G) of this group must be a subgroup, but we know that Z(G) has order 1, p, or p². Since it's not trivial, it's not order 1. Since it can't be , it's not order p. Thus the center is order p².

From this, we can determine that G is abelian - the center of Gis the portion of G that is commutative.

From that, we can conclude that G looks like Zp² or Zp×Zp. Those are the only two abelian groups of order p² (due to Krönecker decompositions).

2007-10-19 19:50:12 · answer #1 · answered by сhееsеr1 7 · 0 0

I believe the only two answers are the cyclic group of order p^2 and the product of the cyclic group of order p with itself.

To attempt a proof:

Clearly, all elements are of order 1, p, or p^2. And so there are only two possibilities:

A. There's an element of order p^2, in which case we're done.

B. All non-identity elements have order p.

I don't immediately see the proof for case B, but usually conjugacy classes play a role somewhere.

2007-10-16 17:39:03 · answer #2 · answered by Curt Monash 7 · 0 0

just to make sparkling: the case |Z(G)| = p, does no longer ensue, because of the fact it finally finally ends up in a contradiction. so G/Z(G) cyclic, mutually as |G| = p^2, forces us to have G/Z(G) = {Z(G)} the id subgroup of G/Z(G), so Z(G) = G.

2016-12-29 13:29:34 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

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