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since they share the same ethnic group?

2007-10-14 17:45:48 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

5 answers

You are probably referring to the 1871 unification of Germany (as the “Second Reich”) that resulted from the Franco-Prussian War. But, as Jim suggests, there have been other “unifications” of Germany.

Although Austrians are indeed from the same ethnic stock as Germans, and although they share a common language (with regional variations), there is only one time in history when they became technically “Germans”. That was following Hitler’s “Anschluss” (the word means link-up) with Austria. In a legal sense, Anschluss made Austria part of Germany from March 1938 until the end of WW2.

It could be argued that Austria was also part of Germany during the Holy Roman Empire era (ended 1806). But “Germany” as an internationally recognized, unified nation did not exist during that era.

Reverting to my hunch that you are asking about 1871, etc. ...

After the Napoleonic Wars, Austria and Prussia were rivals for leadership of the German states. Because of its past leadership of the Holy Roman Empire, Austria was regarded as the traditional leading state within racial / geographical Germany. Because of religion, Austria also tended to be seen as the natural leader by Catholic (mainly Southern) Germans; while Prussia, being Protestant, tended to be viewed as the leader by Protestant (mainly Northern Germans).

Prussia’s aim was to unify Germany, under its own leadership. Austria’s aim was to keep Germany disunited, thus keeping its own influence paramount amongst the south Germans. Finally, in 1866, Bismarck engineered a crisis that produced war between Prussia and Austria. Prussia won, convincingly.

This victory allowed Bismarck to exclude Austrian influence from German affairs from then on. Four years later, in 1870, Bismarck engineered another crisis with France, and used the Franco-Prussian War as a vehicle to unite Germany (excluding Austria) under the Hohenzollerns.

2007-10-15 02:30:50 · answer #1 · answered by Gromm's Ghost 6 · 0 0

Austria replaced into much greater important than the German states - on an analogous time as much as WWI. It replaced into the Austrian then Austro-Hungarian Empire, overlaying huge factors of eastern Europe. The Austrians did no longer prefer to unify Germany - that replaced into an inner German count led, interior the main, via Prussia, the biggest German state. the reality that the language replaced into German did no lead them to Germans. Mozart and Hayden are noted as Austrian (even although the latter spent maximum of his life in Hungary, on the estates of count selection Esterhazy). Beethoven is the two German and Viennese as he replaced into born in Bonn yet spent maximum of his composing life in Vienna.

2016-11-08 08:39:48 · answer #2 · answered by zeh 4 · 0 0

Do you mean the unification of East and West Germany? Austria isn't part of Germany although they share a common language.

2007-10-14 20:04:29 · answer #3 · answered by Jim 7 · 0 0

It depends what you mean by 'technically'.
Before 1866, Austria was part of Germany.
After 1866, it was not, but German Austrians still had 'German' in their official identity.

2007-10-15 05:31:43 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Germanic or Teutonic, Yes. Germans, No. Austria was a separate entity.

2007-10-14 17:50:02 · answer #5 · answered by Ashleigh 7 · 0 0

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