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the problem is 1-i over 1+i, the answer i got is one, is that right?(seems too easy thats why im asking)

2007-10-14 17:43:22 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

(1 - i)/(1 + i)
Multiply by (1-i)/(1-i)
(1 - 2i + i^2)/(1 - i^2)
(1 - 2i -1)/(1-(-1)
-2i/2 = -i

2007-10-14 17:48:49 · answer #1 · answered by duffy 4 · 1 0

(1 - i)(1 - i) / (1 + i)(1 - i)
1 - 2 i - 1 / (1 + 1)
(- 2 i ) / 2
- i

2007-10-15 00:02:25 · answer #2 · answered by Como 7 · 0 0

the simplified version is a million that is for the reason which you have the comparable numbers interior the numerator as you do interior the denominator think of of it like x/x=a million or 2/2=a million EDIT sorry steve improve into suited i didnt see that there you have been subtracting interior the denominator. it could then be -a million for the reason which you may get rid of the V(a) s through fact they are the comparable after which you have 2V(y)/-2V(y) it is the comparable as saying x/-x

2016-10-22 11:16:10 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

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