I see you've corrected your use of the word "steal." Good job. To answer your corrected question, the runner may advance AFTER he retouches his base. In fact, sometimes you'll see a fielder intentionally allow a deep fly ball to fall foul with, for example, a runner on third in a close game.
Time for the Official Rules! Accept no substitute! Let's take it step-by-step.
If the ball is NOT caught, runners must return and it's a dead ball. However, there's nothing that says the ball is dead when the ball IS caught. Therefore, the ball is still live and in play:
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5.09 The ball becomes dead and runners advance one base, or return to their bases, without liability to be put out, when—
[skips irrelevant (a)-(d)]
(e) A foul ball is not caught; runners return. The umpire shall not put the ball in play until all runners have retouched their bases;
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So, the ball was caught. It's not a dead ball. Now that it's still live, under what circumstances can the runner be put out?
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7.08 Any runner is out when—
[skips irrelevant (a), (b), and (c)]
(d) He fails to retouch his base after a fair or foul ball is legally caught before he, or his base, is tagged by a fielder. He shall not be called out for failure to retouch his base after the first following pitch, or any play or attempted play. This is an appeal play;
Rule 7.08(d) Comment: Runners need not “tag up” on a foul tip. They may steal on a foul tip. If a so-called tip is not caught, it becomes an ordinary foul. Runners then return to their bases.
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The runner can be put out for NOT returning to his base. So, he returns to his base, eliminates that possibility, and now he can't be put out for not returning anymore. Still, nothing has made the ball dead yet! Therefore, the ball is still live, and runners may advance at any time the ball is live. After a catch, and after the base is retouched, the runner may advance.
A tidbit of trivia for you on the topic - back in the mid-1800s, runners were not allowed to advance on a foul ball of any kind; not a regular foul ball, not a tip, not even a catch...and furthermore, if the ball was returned to the pitcher, he could then throw the ball to a base before the runner returned to it to put the runner out. Therefore, runners often had to sprint back to their bases on foul balls. Check out more crazy old-days rules at http://www.vbba.org .
EDIT: The thumbs-down troll made me re-check my post, and I have corrected it to say, "So, the ball was caught. It's not a dead ball." It previously said "wasn't." Sorry, brain malfunction. Happy now? :-)
2007-10-14 14:33:38
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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He can't steal, but he can tag up. Say you had bases loaded with one out. The batter hits a deep fly ball to the outfielder and it is caught in foul ground. The runners can tag up and advance a base and even score the run.
2007-10-14 14:31:03
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answer #2
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answered by backpackwayne 5
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It does not matter if the ball is fair or foul.The player who is on base (the runner) must return to the base he is occupying until the fielder touches the ball, this is tagging up. The base runner can then attempt to advance to the next base. If the runner is successful he is not credited with a stolen base. If a runner is on 3rd base and scores the batter is credited with a sacrifice and a run batted in. Also, the batter is not charged with an "at bat."
2007-10-14 12:31:28
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answer #3
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answered by Kman 6
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If they can tag up and make it to the next base safely. It's done all of the time when there is a runner on third and there's a deep fly ball. It's called a sac fly.
2007-10-14 13:26:53
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answer #4
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answered by Amy F 3
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He could tag up, but not steal. I suppose he could take his chances and run and hope it got dropped, but then it wouldn't be in play, it would be foul. Plus if it did get caught he'd be an easy out.
I sure took a long time to say "no". :)
2007-10-14 12:27:29
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answer #5
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answered by Brett S 2
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He would have to tag up once the ball is caught.
2007-10-14 12:27:05
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answer #6
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answered by crazydave 7
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No, but the runner can tag up and score after the catch.
2007-10-14 12:42:33
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answer #7
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answered by Frizzer 7
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yes, because technically, it doesn't matter if the ball is in play or not because someone could steal at anytime (like when the catcher drops the ball for some reason after a pitch)
2007-10-14 12:24:14
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answer #8
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answered by inkyblack11 3
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not on a foul ball
2007-10-14 12:23:02
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Technically, he can. But it's not recorded as a SB.
2007-10-14 12:54:53
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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