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In the Progressive Era...

2007-10-14 11:44:18 · 6 answers · asked by questionaire 1 in Arts & Humanities History

6 answers

First, a few corrections of some things already suggested:

a) "bra burning" was hardly a Progressive era method! (you're about 50 years to soon on that!)

b) "secret meetings" themselves would hardly gain someone the right to vote. In fact, rumors about such things might galvanize OPPOSITION. So I must assume the reference is to specific tactics planned in those meetings... but what WERE those methods??

c) "fighting tooth and nail" -- to take nothing away from the great efforts many made, this should not be taken too literally. It appears that when particularly strong methods, esp. violent ones were employed, they backfired. (This certainly seemed to be the case in England, where arguably the more extreme methods of the "suffragettes" caused a backlash and undermined the longtime, ongoing efforts of the suffragists.)

d) in fact, "fighting men" cannot very well explain it. Remember that it was the MEN who had to cast the votes for women to be given the right to vote. Being difficult, nagging, etc., might have swayed a few, but could hardly have worked to gain the WIDESPREAD support needed to pass the measure. A key part had to be the conviction of those men that women voting was good and just, and/or in their best interest.

(Comparing England again -- the decision, and esp. the timing, was not determined simply by debates about 'justice' and 'rights', but by considerations of the different PARTIES about how their power and concerns might be helped or hurt by such a measure.)

e) Congress does not "ratify" amendments -- it passes them, and the STATE legislatures ratify them. I mention that not just to nitpick, but to point out that women's suffrage in the U.S. required, and received ratification from legislatures of 3/4 of the STATES. Any explanation in terms solely of getting the 2/3 vote needed in Congress is totally inadequate

Now, a few notes on how women's suffrage WAS gained:

a) first, it did NOT all happen in the "Progressive Era". In fact, suffrage came first in a number of STATES, and several years before this. The federal amendment was the culmination of the effort.

b) women's suffrage was an outgrowth of a long period of expanding the franchise -- consider that in the early 19th century a large part of the MALE population was not eligible to vote either (at first only 'property owners'). In other words, the franchise of 'right to vote' was not quite seen as the basic individual human right we think of it as. (BTW, this also means that NOT granting a group, including women, the right to vote, did NOT necessarily mean one thought them less capable or worthy of basic rights and protections.)

For that matter, much more was seen as based on the FAMILY -- thus, a man voting was doing so to represent the interests of his family (including his wife and minor children), and was not thought to be voting just for himself. (Similarly, at an earlier period when property qualifications limited the franchise, one was ideally supposed to be voting in light of COMMUNITY interests, including those who worked for people of property, not just one's own.)

c) the key time of change was the 19th century. During this time there were rapid changes in society and the family, including increased public involvement of women. One big piece of this was the large role women played in the great social REFORM MOVEMENTS of the era -- from temperance to abolition. This brought them increasingly into the arena of public political debate and opened men more and more to their fuller participation via the vote and holding elective office. (There was actually a major split within the abolitionist movement about whether women's suffrage ought to be linked to the cause. Both men and women fell on either side of this issue. Nonetheless, )

d) undoubtedly, a number of men who had come to accept the granting of the franchise to former black slaves (though in practice its exercise was often limited) despite their own lingering prejudices, were as a result more open to the notion of their wives' being allowed to vote

e) in both the U.S. and Britain, the great support of women for the war effort (in the factories) seems to have gained goodwill and helped to provide the final margin needed to pass such measures (cf. this to the way the valiant fighting of black troops in the Union army during the Civil War helped persuade many Northerners that these who fought deserved the right to vote)

2007-10-17 06:18:00 · answer #1 · answered by bruhaha 7 · 0 1

"Chances are that if Hillary wins, INSANLY LARGE numbers of blacks won't vote for Hillary in November." False. First off, insanely large numbers of people don't vote, period. Of likely voters, there prolly won't be a huge drop in turnout among blacks. They're faithful democrats. Hill is a Clinton. This is a no-brainer. Even Gore got the black vote with ease--it would take a fairly presumptive smear to stop Hillary from getting the usual treatment from blacks and considering that Obama would continue to support the party, I just don't see this problem happening.

2016-05-22 13:19:47 · answer #2 · answered by laquita 3 · 0 0

They fed the men viagra and said no until the men went crazy.

2015-06-17 15:30:16 · answer #3 · answered by TCA 1 · 0 0

burning bras, holding secret meetings, protesting, fighting men who wanted to keep them in the kitchen in congress to ratify the 19th amendment.

2007-10-14 11:54:21 · answer #4 · answered by dcarcia@sbcglobal.net 6 · 0 0

They fought tooth and nail to get it.

2007-10-14 11:48:35 · answer #5 · answered by Angel Bonnie 4 · 0 0

Bitching and nagging...what a woman does best.

2007-10-14 11:51:31 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

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