Do you believe that if you divorce a woman she has the right to take half of your money even the money that you made before the two of you were married? why or why not?
2007-10-14 02:42:29 · 4 answers · asked by djmixah7 3 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
To me that would depend on the length of the marriage. If it was under a year probably not. She would be entitled to those assets earned in that time, but not all those before then. But after a few years then yes, I do think half and half is fair.
2007-10-14 02:51:42 · answer #1 · answered by Barb Outhere 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the woman was a stay at home mom without a work history or pursuing higher education I think she should recieve money until she can get on her feet, gain a work history and whatever education is needed for her to move on with life; however, I think there should be a reasonable time limit.
In my case, I had a great job and am working on my Master's degree.. I did not ask for any money for myself, only child support for our daughter.
2007-10-14 09:51:39 · answer #2 · answered by Wildflower 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you divorce her and she has no job then yes. Because the whole time you were working it was for both of you and you promised to live your whole life with her. When you married her all of that was half hers and was supposed to remain that way forever.
2007-10-14 09:46:37 · answer #3 · answered by Tbone 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes.. I believe that..lol
cuz u married to her and two people become one..
if u have sign any paper for your assets before ur marriage, then its all urs..
otherwise, she get half...lol
sorry to hear that...lol
Good Luck!!!
2007-10-14 12:10:04 · answer #4 · answered by back2future 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋