Undefined.
It'll be a line parallel to the y-axis, a vertical line, which doesn't have a slope.
2007-10-12 15:39:15
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answer #1
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answered by SoulDawg 4 UGA 6
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the slope perpendicular to y= -1 would not exist because there can be no y = k line that describes a vertical line. However, an x= k line will work, and it's "slope" will be 0, just like the y= -1 line.
2007-10-12 22:41:16
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answer #2
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answered by Bob S 2
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The gradient of the line y = -1 is 0.
The gradient of the normal, which is the line perpendicular to the line y = -1, is 1/0.
Division by zero gives you infinity.
So the normal is actually a vertical line, straight down, which has a gradient of infinity. Of course, it doesn't make sense. The equation of the line is x = n, where n is a real number.
2007-10-12 22:40:05
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answer #3
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answered by darrenfoong1 2
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y=-1 is a horizontal line so its perpendicular line will have the slope undifined because the slope of a vertical line will give you a divide by 0 error.
2007-10-12 22:54:15
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answer #4
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answered by Rakesh P 3
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The slope is 0.
This is because y=-1 (vertical line) has an undefined gradient.
A line perpendicular to a vertical line is a horizontal line.
2007-10-12 22:42:13
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answer #5
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answered by Albert S 1
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undefined.
y = mx+C
m = gradient,
y=-1,
m = 0,
slope of line perpendicular to the line y=-1,
m = 1/0
*error*
2007-10-12 22:40:14
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answer #6
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answered by ^^' 2
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If one slope is perpendicular to another slope it is always the negative reciprocal. So...say its the slope is 2, the perpendicular slope would be -1/2
2007-10-12 22:38:54
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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what's the slope of the first line? or at least another point?
2007-10-12 22:38:40
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Zero
2007-10-12 22:38:59
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answer #9
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answered by threelegmarmot 2
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any line x=any number
2007-10-12 22:38:33
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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