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11 answers

Undefined.

It'll be a line parallel to the y-axis, a vertical line, which doesn't have a slope.

2007-10-12 15:39:15 · answer #1 · answered by SoulDawg 4 UGA 6 · 0 0

the slope perpendicular to y= -1 would not exist because there can be no y = k line that describes a vertical line. However, an x= k line will work, and it's "slope" will be 0, just like the y= -1 line.

2007-10-12 22:41:16 · answer #2 · answered by Bob S 2 · 0 0

The gradient of the line y = -1 is 0.

The gradient of the normal, which is the line perpendicular to the line y = -1, is 1/0.

Division by zero gives you infinity.

So the normal is actually a vertical line, straight down, which has a gradient of infinity. Of course, it doesn't make sense. The equation of the line is x = n, where n is a real number.

2007-10-12 22:40:05 · answer #3 · answered by darrenfoong1 2 · 0 0

y=-1 is a horizontal line so its perpendicular line will have the slope undifined because the slope of a vertical line will give you a divide by 0 error.

2007-10-12 22:54:15 · answer #4 · answered by Rakesh P 3 · 0 0

The slope is 0.

This is because y=-1 (vertical line) has an undefined gradient.

A line perpendicular to a vertical line is a horizontal line.

2007-10-12 22:42:13 · answer #5 · answered by Albert S 1 · 0 1

undefined.

y = mx+C
m = gradient,
y=-1,
m = 0,
slope of line perpendicular to the line y=-1,
m = 1/0
*error*

2007-10-12 22:40:14 · answer #6 · answered by ^^' 2 · 0 0

1

If one slope is perpendicular to another slope it is always the negative reciprocal. So...say its the slope is 2, the perpendicular slope would be -1/2

2007-10-12 22:38:54 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

what's the slope of the first line? or at least another point?

2007-10-12 22:38:40 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Zero

2007-10-12 22:38:59 · answer #9 · answered by threelegmarmot 2 · 0 1

any line x=any number

2007-10-12 22:38:33 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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