2007-10-12 14:43:51 · 10 answers · asked by Kirb Appeal 1 in Sports ➔ Baseball
The out isn't recorded unless the catcher catches the third strike. Since he dropped it (or didn't touch it at all), the runner can go to first and try to beat the throw.
2007-10-12 14:47:26 · answer #1 · answered by DANIEL G 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The reasoning behind this rule, as I read it many years ago, is that the defense should have to make a clean play before the offensive player (in this case, the batter) is out. At first glance, that sounds a little goofy, but think about it--no other play allows the defense to record an out without a clean play by one of the defenders.
If first base is occupied with less than two outs, the rule doesn't apply, because the catcher would always be dropping the third strike to start a double play.
It's still recorded as a strikeout, whether the batter makes it to first or not. So it's possible for a pitcher to have more than three strikeouts in an inning.
2007-10-12 15:09:52 · answer #2 · answered by grizzie 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
The batter is permitted to run if it extremely is the 0.33 strike. If the catcher can no longer get the ball to first base before the runner gets there, the runner is risk-free. bear in strategies, the 0.33 strike isn't a undesirable ball. whilst the batter has 2 strikes on him, a undesirable ball isn't a strike till the catcher or yet another fielder catches the ball before it hits the floor. So, if the batter has 2 strikes on him and the bat touches the ball and the catcher drops the ball, the batter will possibly no longer improve. Batters might improve whilst the catcher drops the ball, till the bat has touched the ball. Batters may additionally improve after a ball is caught by utilising the fielder, yet to accomplish that, they might desire to first bypass lower back to the backside they have been occupying and "tag-up", in different words, bodily touch the bag, before attempting to enhance greater than a number of regulations, yet all designed to make confident each and every group performs the interest comparable to another group.
2016-11-08 03:46:33 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
because the catcher has to either catch the ball or tag the runner or something like that, but the thing is the batter can get on base if he makes it before the throw to first.
2007-10-12 14:47:31 · answer #4 · answered by nitr0 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because the catcher has to catch the ball cleanly or else the play has to be made at first. If it's successful it's still recorded as a strikeout.
2007-10-12 14:56:59 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Once he caught the ball the play is not complete until he for sure has control of that ball and does not drop it. Once he loses control and drops it it become a free ball and the batter can run.
2007-10-12 14:58:53 · answer #6 · answered by missellie 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The batter stole first base on an error.
2007-10-12 14:55:42 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because if the third strike is not caught, the batter is not out. He must either be tagged out or thrown out.
2007-10-12 14:48:36 · answer #8 · answered by curtisports2 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because that's the way the rules are written. First base must be open, though.
2007-10-12 14:48:23 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
because the rules were made up over a bottle of absinthe .
2007-10-12 14:53:43 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋