is it 1-(cos^2x/sin^2x) or (1-cos^x)/sin^2x ?
2007-10-12 10:24:08
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answer #1
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answered by Maurizio G 2
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If you mean (1 - cos^2(x)) / sin^2(x), and not 1 - (cos^2(x) / sin^2(x)), then since sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1, this simplifies to sin^2(x) / sin^2(x) = 1. This gives you x when you integrate, so the answer is pi - 0 = pi.
Note that the original expression is undefined at 0 and pi. However, the function is still continuous up to there.
2007-10-12 10:26:53
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Great confusion , as can be seen from the answers , due to lack of brackets.
Will hazard a guess (and it can only be a guess) at:-
I = ∫ (1 - cos ² x) / sin ² x dx
I = ∫ sin ² x / sin ² x dx
I = ∫ 1 dx between limits of 0 and π
I = x
I = π
You might be good enough to let us know what the original question is meant to be.
2007-10-16 07:17:18
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answer #3
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answered by Como 7
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∫1 - cos^2 x/sin^2 x dx
= ∫2 - csc^2 x dx
= 2x + cotx, x from 0 to pi =>undefined
∫(1 - cos^2 x)/sin^2 x dx
= ∫dx, x from 0 to pi
= pi
2007-10-12 10:27:54
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answer #4
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answered by sahsjing 7
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f(x) = ?(0 to pi, (a million + cos(x)) dx ) First, evaluate the necessary. The necessary of one million is x, and the necessary of cos(x) is sin(x). Defining F(x) to be the necessary, F(x) = x + sin(x), in an attempt to judge our convinced necessary: F(pi) - F(0) [ pi - sin(pi) ] - [ 0 - sin(0) ] [ pi - 0 ] - [ 0 - 0 ] pi - 0 pi
2016-10-09 02:46:19
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answer #5
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answered by ? 4
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use this trig identity:
sin [x] ^2 + cos [x]^2 = 1
this implies 1 - cos [x]^2 = sin [x]^2
your new integral is
int (pi to 0) sin [x]^2/ sin [x]^2 dx
= int (pi to 0) 1 dx
= x
sub in your values
= Pi - 0
= Pi
2007-10-12 10:28:35
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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I assume you mean 1 - (cos²x/sin²x), otherwise the answer is trivial.
∫[1 - (cos²x/sin²x)]dx = ∫[1 - cot²x]dx
= x + (cot x + x) = 2x + cot x
However, cot x is undefined at both x = 0 and x = π.
2007-10-12 10:42:22
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answer #7
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answered by Northstar 7
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If the problem states:
Integral (1-cos^2x) / sin^2x dx
Integral sin^2x / sin^2x dx
Integral dx = x
Answer: pi
If the problem states:
Integral 1 - (cos^2x / sin^2x) dx
Integral 1 - tan^2 x dx
x - (Integral tan^2x dx)
(Integral tan^2x dx)
x - (tan x - x)
Answer: 2pi - tan pi
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O wow! I thought it was tan^2 x all along lol until Northstar wrote cot^2 x.
2007-10-12 10:31:49
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answer #8
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answered by UnknownD 6
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