2007-10-12 08:34:56 · 15 answers · asked by Malcolm S 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Yep - you are married.
2007-10-12 08:38:15 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
No. The only 'owner' is the person listed on the deed/title. However, if the property was purchased *during the marriage, using martial funds* (vs separate funds), then a judge can rule that it's a martial asset and therefore the spouse is entitled to their fair share of the equity.
2007-10-12 08:55:26 · answer #2 · answered by kp 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
It actually depends on what state you live in. In California, for example, anything the husband owns the wife has 50% right to. Some states will not recognize her as a stakeholder unless her name is on the deed. Check with a local attorney or your state's government website for more details.
2007-10-12 09:05:32 · answer #3 · answered by holzer_marie 2 · 0⤊ 3⤋
I believe that all states have community property laws that state both spouses are equal owners even if they are not listed on the deed. If you try to sell property that is community property you may get by with it but if you get caught then you will owe the buyer all there money back, court cost, attorney fees and your spouse or ex-spouse their half. If they take you to court over it then you could owe them all plus damages.
2007-10-12 08:42:22 · answer #4 · answered by Older Guy 3 · 0⤊ 3⤋
the two adult males and females get carry of alimony based on the thought in marriage, one significant different helps and creates a house for the different whilst they're mountain climbing the ladder of success whilst additionally many circumstances working the organization of the abode. while the couple separates, the thought the marital help whether or not that's financial (procuring the efficient significant different's coaching whilst married), emotional or different is effective is why alimony is paid.
2016-10-22 04:21:20 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm not on the deeds, but unless the law changes i am still entitled to half of every thing we have.
2007-10-12 08:38:54 · answer #6 · answered by Lisa T 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Your Wife is entitled to 50% of everything that you own combined together whether or not she is on the title and deed.
2007-10-12 08:44:41 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
Not if the husband purchased the property, before she married him.
2007-10-12 08:38:58 · answer #8 · answered by Sweet Suzy 777! 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
It depends on your state law
2007-10-16 08:20:01 · answer #9 · answered by silvergirl 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the state where you live.
2007-10-16 08:38:30 · answer #10 · answered by Kimberly 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, as they are, as they have a legitimate right to the property even if they just sleep over for a few months i've been told
2007-10-12 08:39:22 · answer #11 · answered by ? 5 · 0⤊ 3⤋