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2007-10-12 05:17:12 · 3 answers · asked by rick35951 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

3 answers

Without knowing the specific facts of the case, no one can answer this. Personal and subject matter jurisdiction are complex issues which cannot be simply summarized.

2007-10-12 05:22:30 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You will need to give more info to get an answer. Obviously the judge didn't go out of his State to make the ruling so at some time, he had jurisdiction over the party involved.

2007-10-12 05:24:45 · answer #2 · answered by sensible_man 7 · 0 0

state judges generally no, federal judges generally Yes.

2007-10-12 05:25:20 · answer #3 · answered by Jan Luv 7 · 0 2

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