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Isn't American founded on equality?
You don't have to pay more for a car because you make more money. So why do user fees increase because you make more?

2007-10-12 04:23:22 · 6 answers · asked by ahedou2 4 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

6 answers

I'd say because the who have higher capital benefit from social services. Say with education. An employee benefits from the education they received preparing them for work, but the employer benefits from the education all the employees received.

Or, it could be that a 10% tax on a 20k/yr income is more harmful given the cost of essential goods, compared to someone making 20 million and getting take 40%. They are still a multi-millionaire, still have money for luxury goods.

Tax me 80% on 20 million/yr. My remaining 4 million will give me 333,333.33 each month. Can you imagine having that much money? I can't.

But Paris Hilton can.

2007-10-12 04:40:55 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

So everyone should be paid the same too? I guess your argument would work then.

But otherwise that solution creates all sorts of problems. For the people who can't pay any user fees (the poor), they wouldn't be able to buy the car (fees for services). With no roads, electricity, police, plumbing, education, buildings, telephones, trash services through the poor parts of town - how long do you think a society like that could exist?

At the very least you would end up paying higher taxes to police the area and to prevent the spread of disease or destruction of the environment which would eminate from such areas.

And as for taxing the rich - I'm in favor of it. And I vote to raise my own taxes for schools and other important services every chance I get. Though I agree with conservatives that cutting graft and waste is equally important. A little raise in taxes from time to time never seems to affect my bottom line. Generally, I would have no problem rasing my income taxes, although I could use a little while to plan economically for any significant increase.

2007-10-12 11:35:55 · answer #2 · answered by Jeremy B 2 · 1 0

Perhaps because if you ask a poor person to pay 50 percent of his salary in taxes, he might starve to death. When you ask the rich man, he not only still makes ends meet but has enough left over for a 2nd yacht.

So the equality is in contributing an equal amount of sweat, not an equal amount of money.

2007-10-12 11:44:58 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

You would charge the "rich" more because they make more money. Pure and simple. It's not like the "poor" can afford to give any more taxes.

Most taxes are in percentages. So if you make $10 000 a year you are going to pay less money then someone who makes $100 000 a year. Even though it's all in the same percentage.

2007-10-12 11:38:32 · answer #4 · answered by Laughing all the way 5 · 0 0

Most of the people who believe that are the ones that would not have to pay the higher taxes/fees. They are perfectly comfortable living off of others hard work.

2007-10-12 11:33:36 · answer #5 · answered by marystoy_2000 5 · 0 1

Agreed. What's always so funny to me is that most libs will tell you "it's not fair you have more then me, we must tax the rich to make it equal." But when asked to define rich, they come up with some magical number. Usually, what it boils down to is that "rich", as defined by the left..is anybody who has more than themselves. And yet, they don't consider themselves rich to the guy who has less than them. Somehow, they think they should be excluded from being labeled "rich".....and that it only applies to the other guy.

2007-10-12 11:33:36 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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