2007-10-09 16:28:26 · 3 answers · asked by B Zaragoza 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
France feared Germany so her aim was to keep Germany so weak that she could never be a threat to France in the future. This si done by restricting Germany's armies, occupation of the Rhineland and making Germany pay huge war reparations.
Britain felt more or less the same but they were less fearful of Germany than France. Her main concern was to keep the German navy weak so it wouldn't threaten her maritime supremacy.
The US felt that Germany was being treated too harshly. They weren't in Europe and were protected by the Atlantic Ocean so they felt less threatened. They actually provided Germany with loans to keep her economy going.
2007-10-09 19:32:38 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
France and Britain were hoping to keep Germany weak for the forseeable future and they had lost most in men and materials.
The USA had lost very little and they wanted Germany to counterbalance what was going on in Russia after the revolution. Also one third of Americans in those days were of German origin so they were more sympathetic.
2007-10-10 02:36:34 · answer #2 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
France because they were closer to Germany.
Britain because they took the worst pounding (they contend).
The USA because we were the deciding factor in victory.
The Europeans tended - understandably - to want harsher reparations (read: Punishment) because they experienced the war on their homeland. Lots of US don't dread war with the same intensity that they do for that very reason. If 9/11 can be said to have any pluses it would be that it was a wake-up call.
(I just noticed - you cited ww1, not wwii.) Forgive my rant, please.)
2007-10-09 23:45:11 · answer #3 · answered by Beejee 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋