2007-10-09 05:54:52 · 18 answers · asked by ? 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
It is freedaom of religion. The intent was not to protect every American from every possible exposure to a religion with which they don't agree.........
2007-10-09 05:58:39 · answer #1 · answered by Brian 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
It is both. The founding fathers were escaping religious oppression and protected themselves with a very clever first amendment. "The First Amendment of the United States protects the right to freedom of religion and freedom of expression from government interference". What this means , in a nutshell, is that all persons have the right to practice their faith without interference from the government. It also means that every person has the right to follow no faith and is also free from government interference. This amendment covers, very clearly, the rights of both the believer and non-believer.
2007-10-09 06:14:52 · answer #2 · answered by FreeThinker 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Amendment I
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for a redress of grievances.
Wow, this is so complicated! It sure is a good thing we have plenty of liberal judges around to interpret every nuance for us.
Those Prepositions can be so tricky. It was lucky for us that Bill Clinton was a liberal lawyer. We could not figure out what the meaning of "is" is without his invaluable help.
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2007-10-09 06:06:13 · answer #3 · answered by Jacob W 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Actually, it's neither. It's this:
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.
2007-10-09 05:58:52 · answer #4 · answered by Holy Cow! 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
THIS IS THE ONLY ONE:
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances
2007-10-09 05:58:35 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
It appears as if it is freedom 'of' religion as long as it is Christianity and it is part of a democratic country.
2007-10-09 06:06:08 · answer #6 · answered by MadLibs 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
"Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof."
Not letting me pray in School prohibits my free exercise of my religion.
So does not allowing Christmas displays. Or ten commandments and crosses on public property.
"Separation of Church and State" is a violation of the First Amendment.
2007-10-09 06:04:52 · answer #7 · answered by Philip McCrevice 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
freedom of religion, is the same as freedom FROM!
but that does not mena freedom from witnessing it.
just means freedom from having to support it, and freedom from being forced to by our government.
2007-10-09 06:06:42 · answer #8 · answered by Boss H 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Both
2007-10-09 06:40:52 · answer #9 · answered by Sordenhiemer 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
From the bag on your face. I say freedom from "revelation."
2007-10-09 06:01:08 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋