what if two numbers repeat equally??
then it means there is no mode??
ie - 11877
2007-10-08 18:39:49 · 6 answers · asked by azen 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
its possible to have two modes.
in your example the two modes would be
1 and 7
2007-10-08 18:45:11 · answer #1 · answered by jayj 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In this case the distribution is "bimodal", meaning that is has two modes, 1 and 7. There is nothing wrong with having two (or more) equal modes.
2007-10-09 01:51:15 · answer #2 · answered by David 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In such a case, both 1 and 7 are the mode.
2007-10-09 01:45:12 · answer #3 · answered by Charliemoo 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It means that you better think twice before trying to do statistics based on a normal distribution on your observations. You can have bimodal distributions where the median would exist without any observations corresponding to the median.
You can always compute a mean, subject to the caveat above.
2007-10-09 01:45:03 · answer #4 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
there can be a mode but you have to do something to the #"s
in order to get your amswer
2007-10-11 17:13:16 · answer #5 · answered by ava_1107 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
zomg,u must of forgot 1 and 7.
2007-10-11 22:20:23 · answer #6 · answered by dave 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋