If you have movie channels, you are perfectly legal to record movies off of them, you can use a TIVO or a DVR to copy them, too. You are not allowed to re-broadcast or make money off of it, but you can legally copy it.
However, if you rent a movie, you cannot copy it, even if you do not re-broadcast or not make any money.
Does anyone know the rationale of this?
2007-10-08 15:09:51 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
John a makes sense. But rented property does not make sense because you are basically renting it on movie channels. To me, if it is piracy to copy rented material, it is piracy to copy rented signal.
Personally, I think if you are not making money by selling copies or hosting the movie at your house and charging, why would it be illegal?
2007-10-09 11:27:35 · update #1
Its called a born in law. Nobody cared about taping when VCRs came out so it was never a issue. It couldn't be stopped so they let it go but now the record industry is greedy and they want their part of the pie.
2007-10-08 15:26:39 · answer #1 · answered by john a 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Anti-Piracy Law.
2007-10-08 15:22:49 · answer #2 · answered by Joeyboy 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
A rental is not your property, you are only borrowing it, by copying it you have devalued it's future use by you.
2007-10-08 15:13:58 · answer #3 · answered by Greg 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
it's just the way it is
2007-10-08 15:17:30 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋