would this sentence make sense?

Question

Men were given higher social ranking than women when The Odyssey took place, but Aphrodite was a goddess, hence equal to her male counterparts.

would it be right to compare a female to a male counterpart, or can that only be used when talking about a male? i know counterpart means having the same functions...so im honestly not sure if this makes sense? thanks! i dont care about the sentence itself, just the word "counterpart."

Answer 1

If male gods and female gods exist, and their social rankings are judged the same way as ordinary males and females, then the use of 'counterpart' in the sentence given is absolutely right.

Answer 2

Counterpart is fine. Opposite number is an alternative; but the problem is with your premise. Assuming that such entities as "gods" and "goddesses" existed, Aphrodite would have been as unconcerned about "social ranking" as her real counterparts - male Gods.
What you are in effect saying is that a female needs to be a goddess order to achieve equality with a male mortal. No feminist teacher would be happy with that!

Answer 3

It makes perfect sense to me. Except "counterparts" might mean Aphrodite is equal to the gods - not male humans.

Answer 4

Can I suggest that you break this into two sentences? It seems that you have two seperate ideas: the inequality of men and women, and; the equality of gods and goddesses.

Also, try using the active instead of the passive voice.

As to the question you asked, yes you can use 'counterpart' in that way.

Answer 5

Makes sense to me.

Answer 6

it makes sense

Answer 7

its pretty.