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2007-10-08 12:28:38 · 2 answers · asked by determined000 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

0.001

2007-10-08 12:55:01 · answer #1 · answered by Dradan 2 · 0 0

It's the other way round. There are 1000 um in 1 mm.

2007-10-08 12:34:28 · answer #2 · answered by Michael B 6 · 0 0

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