2007-10-08 12:20:18 · 13 answers · asked by Matt 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Hi, Matt!
I see this question surface quite often and have steadfastly refused to answer it until now. No offense whatsoever to you or to anybody asking this question, but I've considered this to be one of the most ridiculous ever asked since hearing it for the first time in sixth grade.
Here's why. Let's consider the definition of *sound*:
"Vibrations transmitted through an elastic solid or a liquid or gas, with frequencies in the approximate range of 20 to 20,000 hertz, capable of being detected by human organs of hearing."
Notice, the definition does *NOT* say "detected by human organs of hearing;" it says **CAPABLE** of being detected...
We know through physics that if a tree falls, there should be sufficient atmospheric vibrations to produce sound. Hence, the sound exists whether or not it is detected by human beings.
So-called philosophers who believe otherwise are deliberately changing the definition of the word 'sound' for reasons known but to them. Since philosophy is about truth, this doesn't even come close to being a philosophical question.
The only possible way this question, in the context in which you ask it, can make sense is if you intend 'sound' to mean, "atmospheric vibrations which are *heard*." This is an alternate definition, but how does that present a philosophical quandary? When you define 'sound' as *something heard*, then there isn't any sound if nobody is there to hear it. So what? It is substantively no different than asking, "Can sound be heard if nobody is there to hear it?" What about, "Can something be eaten if nothing is there to eat it?" And on and on it goes.
The implied or underlying argument commits the fallacy of equivocation. One must play with the word 'sound' in order to sustain the discussion.
Best wishes,
Scalia
2007-10-08 20:11:11 · answer #1 · answered by ScaliaAlito 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If a tree falls in the forest, it does not make sound, but vibrations that enter our ears and are translated by our brains. If no creature is around to 'hear' the tree falling, then it only makes a series of vibrations but nothing more. In short, if a tree falls in the forest and nothing is around to hear it, it does not make a sound.
2007-10-09 17:01:37 · answer #2 · answered by Ryu 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, as long as there's an atmosphere. It's a question of semantics. We call "sound" what we can hear. Sound is actually molecules being vibrated. So, when the tree falls, it will certainly disturb and vibrate the air molecules, and if you were there to hear it, you would. If you're not there, you can believe it makes a sound by what you know. It is not quite the quantum question of Schroedinger's Cat, and even that was only proposed as a joke towards quantum weirdness. With your hardly original question, however, you can rely on the science of physics and acoustics to tell you that sound is sound, whether or not you're around.
2007-10-08 12:28:36 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
first of all, it depends on what you see as a "sound". If you think a sound is the vibrations of the air around your ears, then it does not make a sound because no one's brain is interpreting the sound. If you are talking in general, then of course it does. The tree lands, the ground and the air around the tree shake and there are vibrations that are normally interpreted by our ears but..... THERE ARE NO EARS so no the the first thing and yes to the second
2007-10-08 12:29:15 · answer #4 · answered by kampking13 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
As you said 'no one is around to hear it'. Hear what? The sound it makes of course. Thus it does make a sound.
2007-10-08 12:28:45 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
If the tree falls and a branch breaks off and someone is there who witnesses it, does it mean that if no one is there to witness it the branch does not break off?
2007-10-08 12:33:04 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Don H is correct. It causes the vibrations which would be perceived by a hearer as sound, but sound does not exist independent of perception.
2007-10-08 12:31:09 · answer #7 · answered by Captain Atom 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
well...the question has always said "no one" not "nothing".So it is possible to test it even if you cant be there:
Go get a tape recorder in a secluded spot and leave it there.Walk away for a few hours and come back and get the tape recorder.
Listen to what you got and confirm or bust the theory.Have fun!WOO HOO!!
2007-10-08 12:58:43 · answer #8 · answered by Beka14 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. It creates a vibration that would be interpreted as a sound if there were someone there to hear it.
Love and blessings Don
2007-10-08 12:23:11 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 1⤋
Of coarse it makes a sound. just no one to hear it that's all.
2007-10-08 12:23:26 · answer #10 · answered by Avrgeboy123 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋