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2007-10-08 11:21:37 · 2 answers · asked by NOMEGA 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

Yes.

(sec^2 X) is just a way of saying (sec X)^2.

Therefore,

(sec X)(sec X)^2 = (sec X)^3 , or sec^3 X

2007-10-08 11:25:39 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Yes it is.
It is also true that (sec x ) (sec x) = sec^2 x

2007-10-08 11:42:14 · answer #2 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 0 1

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