2007-10-08 10:22:57 · 5 answers · asked by Scouse 7 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
On the contrary korky it was given as a loan. Given that it was government financed a grant is and was against the purpose of the Lottery. My own view is that it was a misappropriatiion of funds --- fraud
2007-10-08 10:36:03 · update #1
Im just reading abouit this - you are right, (so far Ive read about) a loan from the national lottery of £29m in March 2000, and another £49m in september 2000. Thats quite a lot of money (though in reality about £1 each person in the UK)
But so far, nothing about repaying the cash. in fact Ive just written to ask them - a good question and I am curious
2007-10-08 10:55:23 · answer #1 · answered by whycantigetagoodnickname 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Who ever said the Dome was a good cause. The Dome was a total waste of Money
2007-10-08 10:32:02 · answer #2 · answered by pedro_peewee 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the dome WAS A LOST COUSE , millions wasted , dont think the lottery gives loans , but yes they gave the dome plenty ,and for what ,another white elephant ,,,
2007-10-08 10:36:33 · answer #3 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Must have been because when the operating company was wound up in 2002 it had about £25M of lottery grant unspent.
2007-10-08 11:19:56 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The lottery does not give loans.. it gives cash for "good causes" and it does not have to be paid back
2007-10-08 10:30:05 · answer #5 · answered by RAH RAH 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋