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2007-10-08 07:59:55 · 5 answers · asked by bearfan 1 in Sports Football (American)

5 answers

I doubt there was a money line on the 'SC-Stanford game, but if there had been, it would have been about 100 to 1.

The spread was 40 and 1/2 points.

Bookies will establish the moneyline (aka odds) to attract equivalent money on each side so a 4 to 1 favorite would attract $4 for each $1 bet on the underdog.

That said, the spread will be off by 40 or more points about once every 50 -75 games. It's rare, but not extraordinary. For example, Utah beat the spread by 50 in its win over UCLA -- its just that UCLA wasn't the No. 2 team in the nation and wasn't favored by 40+ points.

To be off by 40+ on the Stanford side (as opposed to the SC side) should occur one-half as much or once every 100-150 games. Therefore, if the moneyline followed the true odds, the moneyline would have been some place around 100-1.

SC just had the bad luck of facing an underrated Stanford team and having really bad day (a once in a decade bad day) at the office.

2007-10-08 12:50:01 · answer #1 · answered by Frst Grade Rocks! Ω 7 · 1 0

Since the point spread was +40, you would get 40/1 odds on your money, so in this case, every dollar you put on Stanford would pay you a $40 return. In essence, if you bet $10 on Stanford, you got paid $400. If you bet $100 on Stanford, you got paid $4000, etc.

2007-10-08 08:35:05 · answer #2 · answered by kitchens68 4 · 0 0

there was no money line for this game. however, whoever kitchens is, they are totally wrong. just because a spread is 40 points, that doesnt mean that the odds are 40 - 1. that would have meant the money line would have been +4000 for stanford. i have never seen a money line for a football game that is that much. and i doubt that anybody else has either. dont listen to this clown. he needs to know what hes talking about before answering.

2007-10-09 09:35:32 · answer #3 · answered by johnny j 1 · 0 0

money line usc stanford game

2016-02-02 10:17:25 · answer #4 · answered by Vilhelm 4 · 0 0

+41 was the point spread.

2007-10-08 08:03:24 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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