2007-10-07 17:03:32 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Yes it was a very incestuous relation. The monarchs derived their power (they claimed) from God, and the church backed them up. Laws were passed that forced the people to pay church taxes. Monarchs supported one state religion, others were persecuted, etc. Look to the middle east governments and Islam now to get an idea of how it was then in Europe.
2007-10-08 00:23:42 · answer #1 · answered by tom 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Very much so. In fact, up until the Reformation in the 16th century the Roman Catholic church was Europe and it is arguable that Europe at that time was far more united than it is today under the EU. Kings and princes acknowledged that the Pope had the ultimate say in everything, and was therefore in many ways the supreme ruler of Europe. Look at what happened in England. The Pope refused Henry VIII his divorce from Katherine of Aragon and Henry had to break up from the Pope to get his own way.
2007-10-08 04:43:08 · answer #2 · answered by rdenig_male 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Very much so. The church was more powerful than the state sometimes and promoted persecution against those it considered its enemies with the full authority of the State.
Millions of people died as a result.
They also had laws passed which forced people to give taxes directly to the Church
2007-10-08 01:18:49 · answer #3 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 1⤊ 3⤋
not even close
none of these people have it REMOTELY close. europe has NEVER had a seperation of church and state.
2007-10-08 00:10:28 · answer #4 · answered by BLASTING ON FOOLS 2 · 0⤊ 3⤋