2007-10-07 16:53:59 · 2 answers · asked by Broken Dreams 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
I'm not sure there was a fee as such. A feudal lord did not have the absolute right to stop people crossing his land - in England, for example, from very early days the main roads, which would cross from the territory of one feudal lord to another's, were seen as 'the King's Highway' Further, whether or not a feudal lord had the right to charge a fee would very much depend on what powers he was given when he was granted his land by his liege. Remember there was much 'sub-infeudation', i.e. smaller and smaller pieces of land were let off to less and lesser lords and knights. Their feudal lord would not wish to have his rights of crossing land barred in any way.
2007-10-07 21:48:19 · answer #1 · answered by rdenig_male 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
feudal tax....levy, charge?
2007-10-07 17:11:32 · answer #2 · answered by Steven S 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋