If the Indians are the #1 Seed (assuming they are because they are playing the wild card team), why would the Red Sox have home field advantage in the series? Assuming Indians #1 playing NYY #4. Red Sox #2 playing Angels #3 is how I am figuring it broken out right now. Shouldn't the Red Sox be the #1 seed if they will have home field advantage?
2007-10-07 13:09:08 · 6 answers · asked by mradigan747 2 in Sports ➔ Baseball
Red Sox can't play the Yankees in the Division Series because they're in the same division.
2007-10-07 13:12:12 · answer #1 · answered by Js_5 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Indians are the number two seed. The playoff system works like this: The team with the best record is the team that gets home-field advantage and they will play the wild card team if that team is not from the same division as they are. So this season the Diamondbacks and Boston are #1 overall seeds but both wild card teams play in their divisions so they can not play them in the Division Series that is why the phillies and indians both the second seeds played the wild card teams
2007-10-07 20:23:07 · answer #2 · answered by BHGolf 1 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The Indians are the #2 seed; Boston is the #1, by virtue of winning the season series, 5-2.
The wildcard, which is always the #4 seed regardless of its record, does not play the champion from its own division if that champion is the #1 seed, and plays the #2 instead. Thus this year's AL and NL Division Series pairings.
2007-10-07 20:23:51 · answer #3 · answered by Chipmaker Authentic 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
First off the Red Sox are #1 cause they won the overall series against the tribe and second of all WHAT?????
2007-10-07 20:17:53 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Indains Rock My Socks!! They are the best team in the MLB!
!!IRMS!!
2007-10-07 20:57:59 · answer #5 · answered by jb92897 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because the Indians suck.
2007-10-07 20:13:49 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋