How did the Glorious revolution lead to the rise of constitutional monarchy?
Come on THINK...THINK
2007-10-07 12:47:29 · 4 answers · asked by Bowchickawowwoww 3 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Thadd is thinking. He's absolutely right. England has been a constitutional (limited) monarchy ever since King John was forced by his barons to sign the Magna Carta (Latin for "Great Charter"). So it depends on how far back you want to go. The Glorious Revolution was more of a religious revolution as I recall. There was political turmoil and civil war in England between Catholic and Protestant Christians. Who was getting hosed depended on who was on the throne at the time, a Catholic or a Protestant. William of Orange was a Dutchman, who had a claim to the throne via his ancestry which was probably as good as anyone's at the time. Protestants (who were the majority in England) wanted a Protestant king, and William (or rather Wilhelm -- he was Dutch, remember?) filled the bill on religious grounds, if not nationalistic ones. He made the throne safe for Protestants from then on (there has never been a Catholic king or queen of England after William/Wilhelm's reign). From all accounts, he was a good king, and his people loved him, his Dutch origins notwithstanding. But his most lasting legacy was a more ominous one. William's favorite drink was an alcoholic drink distilled from Juniper berries, and called Gin for short. That stuff damned near ruined the English. It was cheap and easy to make, and it became a plague like crack coccaine or meth is today. I'm not saying this was William's fault, mind you. I'm sure he was as appalled as anyone about the situation, but everyone wants to emulate the king, identify with your heros/role models, whatever. Beware the law of unintended consequences!
2007-10-07 13:08:44 · answer #1 · answered by texasjewboy12 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because in the end neither side could quickly acheive a total victory. So a constitutional monarchy allowed the royalists to hold onto the monarchy they cherished, while transferring the real power to the people which the other side had been after all along.
So, to this day England has a monarchy, but one without true power.
2007-10-07 14:30:31 · answer #2 · answered by rohak1212 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There has been a constitutional monarchy in England since the Magna Carta, 1215 A.D.
2007-10-07 12:51:36 · answer #3 · answered by UncleThadd 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the 1st one is the letter E. the 2nd is a little greater no longer basic. The cowboy have been given under the impression of alcohol and the days he became into sober, he became into able to checking right into a hotel wherein have been Monday, Wednesday and Friday. He entered city on Friday yet did no longer get sober till Monday. The 0.33 one is easy. 5. with the aid of fact the water in uncomplicated terms risen 4 inches.
2016-10-10 12:11:39 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋