If so can anyone tell me what the big change in the law was?
2007-10-06 18:58:55 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
Judges don't make laws. All these people here jump in and act like they know law,but can't answer this. Yet they give me thumbs down for informing them about the original laws.
2007-10-06 19:13:21 · update #1
In most states it was automatic the father was physically and financially resonsible,meaning there was no question about custody and no child support order. Women had it changed(with the help of short sighted males),but only wanted physical responsibility,not financial.
2007-10-06 19:52:50 · update #2
Child custody and divorce is done at the state level. You have to check you state laws so any answer from here will be a guess based on what state laws we know.
2007-10-06 19:45:31 · answer #1 · answered by mnbvcxz52773 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Original when? Do you mean at the founding of the USA, at the dawn of time, or what?
Historically in the USA, the mother was presumed to have exclusive right to custody. If the father wanted custody, it was up to him to prove that the mother was in some way deficient or unable to properly care for the child. This started to change in the late 1960s, when several states enacted either by statute or common law equality between the parents for the sake of custody. The meant that custody went to the parent best able to care for the child, not automatically to the mother.
2007-10-06 19:44:55 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
According to mild_irritant it isn't even a child unless the woman says it is so what's the problem here?
2007-10-06 19:37:25 · answer #3 · answered by Ethan M 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What change?
The law is whatever the judge says it is.
2007-10-06 19:04:54 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋