A=1
B=1
A=B
Multiply both sides by A:
A^2=AB
Subtract B^2 from both sides:
A^2-B^2=AB-B^2
Factor both sides:
(A+B)(A-B)=B(A-B)
Divide both sides by (A-B)
A+B=B
Substitute (Remember, A=1, B=1(see above))
1+1=1
2=1
2007-10-06 11:42:02
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answer #1
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answered by Joseph F 5
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Amusingly enough our entire number system is based on the fact that 1+1=2. It is not possible to prove (mathematically) that 1+1=2; it is an assumption.
You can make new number systems where this is not the case and all the usual rules of addition multiplication etc can follow, it just doesn't make much sense.
So if you wanted you could define a number system where 1=2, which, I think proves that all numbers are equal (n=n+1).
Not much use though.
2007-10-06 12:06:16
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answer #2
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answered by Dark_S_talker 2
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actual, i'm uncertain if human beings doubt if that is genuine, what maximum doubt is the relevance and the accuracy interior the translations. while Constantine desperate to place the bible jointly, he surpassed over some books as he felt they weren't correct for the situations and he mandatory the bible to administration the a lot and what they have been believing. and that's actuality from historical past. an excellent form of the information that archaeologists are looking help that the bible is genuine. although, it additionally helps that the information shows that is genuine to the ultimate of the situations. such because of the fact the flood and the Arc on the time became geared up in a small city in a low valley between severe plains. From the place Noah stood, it gave the effect of the international had flooded because of the fact he in uncomplicated terms knew the small area he lived in. purely as Columbus thought the international became flat because of the fact he observed no longer something distinctive from the place he stood. The parting of the pink sea extremely is the REED see as there wasn't a be conscious for REED returned then to translate. i think of perhaps taking a historical past lesson interior the bible taught via a non believer might income you in looking the actuality.
2016-12-28 17:52:43
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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There is a book on mathematics that proves exactly what you want. I think it is by a Russell (possibly misspelled) who was better known as a philosopher than mathematician. I understand the proof is mathematically correct but has a logic error.
2007-10-06 11:43:04
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answer #4
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answered by St N 7
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of course you can:
(1 = 2) *
*for extremely large values of 1
2007-10-06 11:41:53
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answer #5
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answered by jQ 2
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You can't.
There are, however, plenty of false proofs. Just divide by zero (but don't make it obvious).
2007-10-06 11:34:34
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answer #6
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answered by language is a virus 6
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work backwards. and in the process, make sure you have cancelled a zero.
2007-10-06 11:47:10
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answer #7
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answered by Nilly 3
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If you have one stick and break it half, you now have two sticks, thus one can equal two (you just have two smaller sticks)
2007-10-06 11:38:56
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answer #8
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answered by Bob Thompson 7
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