We don't. fortnightly refers to a 14 day period.
2007-10-04 23:02:39
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answer #1
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answered by Dory 7
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Max M got there before me - the French refer to two weeks as 'une quinzaine' (15 days), whereas in English speaking countries it's 14 days - hence the contraction 'fortnight' for 14 nights. In former days people would also say 'sennight' - 7 nights - for one week. I understand that the reason is a different way of counting the days - the French if starting from, say, Sunday, would include the next but one Sunday - making 15 days, whereas we English stop counting at the Saturday - so 14 nights. Vive la difference!
2007-10-04 23:37:07
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answer #2
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answered by mad 7
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In Spanish, there is also quincena, derived from quince = 15.
They are approximations, but the 15 days is normally more convenient when splitting a month in two.
2007-10-05 00:32:35
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answer #3
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answered by Beardo 7
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We don't. It's 14 days or two weeks in other words. Fortnight is derived from fourteen nights.
2007-10-04 23:07:19
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answer #4
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answered by andy muso 6
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Fortnight=fourteen nights=15 days. Not so very difficult.
2007-10-05 03:12:49
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answer #5
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answered by captbullshot 5
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We don't. At least I don't, and nor does anybody else I know.
I use it to refer to a 14 day period.
After all, the word is a contraction of "fourteen nights".
2007-10-04 23:05:49
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answer #6
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answered by nontarzaniccaulkhead 6
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I always thought that fortnightly referred to a 14 day [two week] period?
2007-10-04 22:57:54
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answer #7
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answered by JJ 2
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I think you must be French, Andre. A fortnight in French is referred to a "quinzaine" or fifteen days. Why is this, when it is only fourteen?
2007-10-04 23:23:24
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answer #8
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answered by max m 6
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I don't, I say "fortnightly" to refer to a fourteen day period.
2007-10-04 23:04:21
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answer #9
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answered by champer 7
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No we don't it is 14. It is old english for fourteen nights
2007-10-04 23:04:04
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answer #10
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answered by Chris 6
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