Can this be true? He made up a will in 2000. He amended it in 2003 where as the Kidney foundation got 70% and the kids to split the rest. She (his wife, not my mother) says that he signed everthing over to her before he died and now there is nothing to probate. He had 2 houses, land, and a 3 bay shop full of costly machinery. I had to send off to the clerk of courts myself to get a copy of the will. There was quite a bit of money back in 2003. Even if, as she says, there is nothing to probate, wouldn`t it have to go before a court to sign off on it? Thank you for your time and help.
2007-10-04
10:49:39
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9 answers
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asked by
rockpendragoon
2
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics