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4 answers

Your answer is not quite complete as the solution requires the specification of a reference frame. In polar coordinates, the radius and angular speed are constant when there is no angular acceleration.
However, if you convert that motion to Cartesian coordinates, and you have non zero acceleration for the same motion.

It has to do with the calculus of Newtonian physics. The position of an object in circular motion is described as theta, the angle of displacement, omega, the angular velocity (yes, it is a vector in polar coordinates), and radius from the origin.
If the radius and omega are constant, such that the rate of change of theta is constant, then the rate of change of omega is zero, therefore no acceleration.

Now look at the same motion in Cartesian coordinates.
The position of the object is always along a circle described as
x^2+y^2=R

Now consider bringing time into the picture to describe the position of the object w/r/t time:
at time t1, the object is at
Y1=sqrt(R-x1^2)

at time 2
y2=sqrt(R-x2^2)
in that time the particle opened an angle of
theta=t*v/R
where cos(th)*R=X2-X1
and sin(th)*R=Y2-Y1

now you have a relationship for the change in x and the change in y w/r/t time. Without doing all of the substitutions, we know that the rate of change of the velocity of the object for x or y will be related to a trigonometric function, and is therefore, non-zero.

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2007-10-03 13:50:33 · answer #1 · answered by odu83 7 · 0 0

Yeah its true as for any motion, translation or rotation no acceleration Exists in uniform motion

2016-05-20 03:39:57 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

they know you are thinking about them when you are looking at them that is why things move they act like they too are people

2007-10-03 13:38:02 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

its changing direction = its accelerating.

2007-10-03 14:08:19 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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