My dad told me to ask some kids in my school if they wanted to buy one of my dads guitars. My dad told me just to get over 400 bucks for it. I told my friend that if he wanted it to give me 550 bucks, and he agreed, however i told my dad i got 500 for it and i pocketed 50 bucks, and gave him the 500. BUT since he told me just to get over 400 bucks for it, is that stealing if i take 50 bucks, even though my dad got 100 bucks higher than expected?
2007-10-03 11:19:56 · 7 answers · asked by >artifactsoftheblackrain< 6 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Polls & Surveys
Yes, it's stealing.
1) To steal is to take what belongs to someone else without their permission.
2) The guitar is your father's property and therefore any money profitted from the selling or exchange of his profit is rightfully his.
3) You and your father didn't agree that you would be charging him a "selling fee" but you told him the buyer gave $ 500 for the guitar. There's a informal agreement and now deception, that you're doing this as a free act of service/favour for your father. Real estate agents and civil lawyers know they have to tell clients what fee/percentage they will charge them.
I wouldn't say it's a "hidden fee" which some companies have because hidden fees are not literally hidden. These fees are listed in the details if you take the time to read the one or three pages (they aren't so hidden that they are somewhere within 100 pages), but they just aren't flat out on big print.
Because the $ 50 is rightfully your father's property and you're taking some of what he received in exchange for the guitar, without his knowing [for reasons established in 2) and 3)] this money does not belong to you.
You can't transfer what he received on to yourself without his permission, just as I can't transfer your car to my property without your permission.
Let's say you told me to sell your used car to Jack. Now you want $ 10, 000 for this car and I manage to get $ 30, 000 by lying to him the car once belonged to Britney Spears (unlikely, but this is a hypothetical situation to abstract an idea from). I give you $ 10, 000 and keep the $ 20, 000 for myself. Wouldn't that be stealing? If you say the numbers are different, as in this case I am getting more than I am what I am giving back to you, so what? How would that be related? That's irrelevant and just "numberism".
Your question can be phrased as "Is it morally OK (I'm not limiting my answer to morally good) to take some of the property another received in an exchange deal, without their knowledge or permission because I aided the act of exchange? My answer is an indubious no, for the reasons cited above.
It's good you're thinking about it! Hope this helps!
2007-10-03 11:31:31 · answer #1 · answered by fading 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Stealing? Not really. I'd look at it more as your 'fee'. A bit dishonest though. It's called hidden fees, companies do it all the time.
2007-10-03 18:26:39 · answer #2 · answered by Mystical Illusions 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
no it ain't stealing its just called HUSTLELING. Now if I was you I would have kept the $150
2007-10-03 18:26:37 · answer #3 · answered by Rayraygirl 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
nope you just got a little gift for the transaction
2007-10-03 18:23:25 · answer #4 · answered by 2bit 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Finder's fee, baby.
You can keep all that dough.
It's in the constitution, I think.
2007-10-03 18:23:48 · answer #5 · answered by sisiwr 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Yes. You took something that didn't belong to you.
2007-10-03 18:23:14 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
not at all..thats good business sense my friend!! go you!
2007-10-03 18:23:04 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋