What it says.
2007-10-03 07:35:56 · 5 answers · asked by mannzaformulaone 3 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Maybe. Like so many other terms, it depends on the definition.
In the broad, literal sense, omnipotence is defined as 'all powerful'. That is, power without ANY limits.
Under this definition, an omnipotent being could exercise the power to create a taco so hot that even the omnipotent being couldn't eat it, but then proceed to eat it. This seems to imply a contradiction, and therefore would be fallacious.
Most theistic philosophers define omnipotence as the power to do anything than CAN be done. Since square circles, ect can't exist, they have no being and no potential, so the theist claims that since the contradictions aren't things, the power of omnipotence is not limited by not being able to perform contradictions.
2007-10-03 08:51:26 · answer #1 · answered by mitten 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The question is if there is a god like figure. One that created the Universe. One that knows all and sees all. (If he is watching me type, his eyes are getting heavy)
If you are a creationist, then yes.
If you are not, then no.
The fact is that for the most part, the answer is unknowable. If the answer can be found after we leave this mortal coil. Even then, if there is life after this one, we may or may not find out.
Is it a fallacy? You will have to figure out if you believe in G-d, or you don't. Some will says yes. Some will make fun of the notion.
2007-10-03 15:25:36 · answer #2 · answered by Songbyrd JPA ✡ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
why a fallacy? there are two types of people. first like who believe in god, ofcourse we believe in the omnipotence of god. but th rest who donot believe in god donot believe so, becaus someone who is omnipotent cannot be but god.
2007-10-03 14:56:53 · answer #3 · answered by tony 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is a childish notion.
2007-10-03 14:43:14 · answer #4 · answered by Fred 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no but impotence is
2007-10-03 14:40:08 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋