So, why does everybody play the first two notes of "Fur Elise" as if they were the downbeat?
You know what it does, don't you?
It gives us a measure of 4/8 followed by the rest of the piece in 3/8. It makes Beethoven look bad. Shame, Shame!
You're a serious musician, aren't you?
Well, I want an answer!
xxx
Sri
2007-10-03 05:07:06 · 5 answers · asked by Ananda ***** 1 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Music ➔ Classical
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Oops, I'm sorry, what were you saying? -- I got so bored hearing that damned tune again I fell asleep.
2007-10-03 08:40:44 · answer #1 · answered by glinzek 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Ok, to understand this, look at bars 4 and 5. (I'm not counting the pickup as a bar here.) Mentally rebar these two bars as one, and think of the beat as twice as long. (I'm going without the music here, and I don't recall if it's 3/4 or 3/8, but you know what I mean, I hope.) So the effect here is a halving of the tempo. So if you play this at metronoma 180, consider these two bars as one 3 bar at 90. This is an effect called "hemiola".
Do you HAVE to interpret it that way? Of course not. You can choose to approach it any way that makes musical sense to you. But this was an explanation of why some musicians have chosen to accent the beat 3 there.
2007-10-03 16:13:48 · answer #2 · answered by Flounder 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The first five notes comprise two couplets, so the count of three isn't broken. It's not an upbeat.
2007-10-03 07:19:35 · answer #3 · answered by jaceman 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think I disagree with your premise - I don't think that is how the piece is typically played. Perhaps you should listen again - try versions of my well known pianists, e.g. Brendel, Pollini, Kovacevich or Goode. All acknowledged Beethoven players.
2007-10-03 07:13:34 · answer #4 · answered by Malcolm D 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
It's probably written in the markings that the notes should sound that way.
2007-10-04 01:25:35 · answer #5 · answered by Erin 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋