2007-10-02 07:07:17 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
One of the last studies done seemed to point to about 5% of the male population (in the United States) are color blind (have a color vision deficiency). By the same study, about 0.25% (1/4 of 1%) of females are affected.
It has been estimated that about 0.25 to 0.5% (1/4 to 1/2 of 1%) of both males and females have true no-color (cones) and only black and white (rods) vision.
Betsy J. Case's report is a good place to start. See the second site below.
2007-10-02 07:24:00 · answer #1 · answered by Richard 7 · 7⤊ 0⤋
Only thing I know about color-blindness is that females have a much smaller probability of being color-blind as compared to males.
2007-10-02 14:13:13 · answer #2 · answered by Madhukar 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
7/100 in men and the square 49/10000 in women
It is a defective gene linked to chromosome X . Probability 0.07 =7/100 on one chromosomeX . By females both chromosomes X must have the defect so (0.07)^2 =0.0049
2007-10-02 14:18:13 · answer #3 · answered by maussy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
being color blind depends on the genes of your parents
2007-10-02 14:16:17 · answer #4 · answered by George 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
3:1 If your mother carries the recessive gene that causes colourblindness
2007-10-02 14:18:06 · answer #5 · answered by biscuit.heads 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's up to the mum and dad, if u ask one person's posibility.
But generally, I don't know.
2007-10-02 14:09:31 · answer #6 · answered by Irmak 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋