I understand that the Treaty of Versailles signed by the Germans at the end of World War One literally bankrupt the German economy. It was not a very good treaty. This ultimately led to the rise of the Nazis and fascism and the second world war.
However, why didn't the same happened to Austria and Hungary? Didn't they also loose the war? Did they suffer as badly as the Germans?
Did fascism arisen in Austria and Hungary after World War One?
2007-10-01 17:29:43 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
They did suffer but the old Austro-Hungarian Empire was broken up in such a way as to leave both countries very weak politically and militarily.
Although Hungary had a fascist government , Austria did not until Hitler marched in during 1938
2007-10-01 17:55:50 · answer #1 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Austria had a huge and powerful section of the Nazi party, as union between Austria and Germany was a central plank of Hitler's programme.
As for Hungary, some people call Horthy's government of 1919-1945 fascist, but it was more like just reactionary.
2007-10-02 02:26:14 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋