I found bits and pieces of my question in other posts but I am going to ask it here in whole. Thanks.
A company thinks their stock is overvalued and doubles the number of outstanding shares (e.g. 2 for 1 split) and cuts the price in half resulting in no immediate market value change.
As an investor you see in your brokerage account the number of shares double while the price falls by half resulting in a net market value change of zero.
What about your cost basis?
Let's say you have only been buying shares (never sold any) of one stock and that you are using the average cost basis your broker calculates for you. All of a sudden the price of those split shares dropped by 50% so if you decided to sell some shares right after the spilt could you potentially even sell at a capital loss and get a tax deduction (more likely the taxable earnings will be less)?
Basically how is your cost basis effected since the stock's price "artificially" went down? Good time to sell?
2007-10-01
12:42:34
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2 answers
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asked by
D
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Business & Finance
➔ Investing
Kate:
Thanks for the reply. I see. I guess I was indirectly asking whether the stock spilt would somehow change the recorded price at which I bought my shares way back when.
Even though the price change was not due to market activity that has no affect on the recorded price at which I bought them. I have better understanding now. Cool.
2007-10-01
13:35:59 ·
update #1