This is the senario, in Arizona a article that is added to say that the English language will be the offical language of the state. An employee who works with spanish speaking citizens claims that the article violates protected free speech. Does the article violate free speech guaranteed by the first amendment? Why and why not? Looking for legitimate answers, none that are bias towards certain race or political agenda.
2007-10-01 09:13:34 · 3 answers · asked by The Ragin Caucasian 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
The 1st amendment guarantees freedom of speech, but doesn't require you speak a certain language. Your choice of language is your choice when you exercise freedom of speech; I see no problem with Arizona making English the official language.
Making English the official language won't outlaw the use of other languages, if anything it just require that all state related materials be in English.
2007-10-01 09:20:05 · answer #1 · answered by Pfo 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
That depends on how the official language law is worded. More than likely there is nothing there that would prevent anyone from saying anything in any language. It would just require all government business is conducted in that language. But I'm guessing at what the proposed law would say.
2007-10-01 16:20:22 · answer #2 · answered by Michael C 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Pfo answered it very well.
Couldn't I argue that Spanish language signs in my English speaking country are illegal, as I am being foced to learn a foreign language in order to understand signs in the town which I was born and raised??
2007-10-01 16:23:33 · answer #3 · answered by no one 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋