did portugal and spain have the right to divide the world?

Answer 1

no more than France, England, Belgium and Holland did. Each country felt it was their right to exploit other so called inferior races. Each felt they were bringing goodness and saving grace to the natives. All the conquering nations felt that they were superior to the natives.

Remember, it was the Europeans who introduced race divisions and the superiority of the Aryan type white folks.
South African whites just took it further. The US wrested much of the land from the native Indians and thought it was their right to subjugate Africans as slaves for their plantations during much of the 18th and 19th century. So did Hitler, only trouble was, he started hammering other europeans too and especially the Jews. No one seemed to have cared about rights then.

When Spain and Portugal went on their plunder, they had the blessings of the Roman Catholic Church at that time. Theirs was a fire led by the cross which today's catholics would be horrified at!
It is this same passion that has taken hold of militants everywhere albeit under a different banner and warcry.

Man has not changed much, he just marches to a different drumbeat.

Answer 2

This a tough one.
"...have the right to ..." - Its a very strong sentence. I believe they didn't had the right but they tried, got the Pope agreement and no one went against them. It didn't create a war with other countries.

So, they didn't had the right but the whole world gainned from it. At that time Portugal and Spain were the main world leaders and by dividing the world each one new where they could explore without interference from the other. Because of this Brazil was found, the naval route to India was discovered, etc...

It also had its bad side as the use of slave work, amongst others...

Answer 3

It wasn't the whole international,it replaced into "newly got here across lands" below the words of the 1494 Treaty of Tordesillas. An imaginery North-South line replaced into drawn approximately midway between the Cape Verde Islands (long earlier colonized by ability of the Portuguese) and the island of Hispaniola,Columbus' first area claimed for Spain interior the 'New international' of the Americas. Spain have been given each thing to the west of the line,Portugal each thing to the east - so a ways as "newly got here across" lands have been worried. the reason of the Treaty of Tordesillas replaced into that the Pope did no longer want 2 Catholic international locations combating one yet another over who could administration what lands interior the 'New international' of the Americas.

Answer 4

not according to the King of France he said regarding the line of demarcaton "I would like to see Adams will wherein he divides the world between Spain and Portugal".

Answer 5

If two countries, jointly, have legitimate ownership to a streach of territory then they may rightly divide it amongst themselves.
So what constitutes "legitimate ownership"? The answer is extensive and sole occupation by your subjects for a considerable time. By this standard the Indians were the legitimate owners and dispossesing them of it would have been a gross infraction of what's right, both legally and morally.

Answer 6

Actually it was Pope Alexander VI who did it. The result was the Treaty of Tordesillas.

Answer 7

It is a waste of time to talk of rights, as though rights ever affected anything.

Answer 8

U should ask this question with Mr. Bush (so called hero of the world) and alies U.K.

Answer 9

According to the Holy Roman Catholic Church they did.

Answer 10

No more than France and England!