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2007-09-30 11:46:49 · 2 answers · asked by James 1 in Business & Finance Investing

2 answers

Yes it has to do with voting rights, not race!! ha ha! Usually less than 50%, there is such a thing as a "minority controlling share" which can be less than 50% like say 16% but share ownership is so diluted that they have a powerful voting power over management.

2007-09-30 15:09:34 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I think it is any amount less than 50% of the total shares ,
But yahoo finance glossary only had this > >

Minority interest
An outside ownership interest in a subsidiary that is consolidated with the parent for financial reporting purposes.

>

2007-09-30 18:53:01 · answer #2 · answered by kate 7 · 0 0

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