http://i181.photobucket.com/albums/x85/ctti_3/untitled-74.jpg
the answer was said to be #5 but i dont get it
2007-09-30 06:59:28 · 3 answers · asked by ruby 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
sry if u cant read it, i think clicking into the pic would help much better
2007-09-30 07:14:52 · update #1
Hi,
The line bounding the region above the x-axis is x+1, and that area is equal to the definite integral of that function from 0 to 1. The line below the x-axis is actually (-1/2)x, but it's area from 0 to 1 is the same as (1/2)x from 0 to 1. So that, the total area is the same as the function given.
Hope this helps.
FE
2007-09-30 07:32:07 · answer #1 · answered by formeng 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Okay, I think answer is 5).
First , the intergral says, (x+1)+(1/2)x.
So, that tells you since its "+" that 2 graphs are
being added.
SO, that narrows it down to 2 or 5,
since those have shaded areas above and below the
x-axis.
Now you notice on 5) the area below, if it was turned upside down, is y=(1/2)x. And the area above is y=x+1.
SO, these would be added. So, I think its 5).
2007-09-30 14:43:23 · answer #2 · answered by yljacktt 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sorry, can't read the problem
2007-09-30 14:05:17 · answer #3 · answered by fcas80 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋