2007-09-30 04:07:27 · 5 answers · asked by phoenixxgrey 3 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
The comparative "farther" is different because it goes back to a different root. It is a variant of "further" (the form itself influenced by the word "far"), which apparently is related to the word "forth".
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=further
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=forth
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=far
2007-09-30 16:08:39 · answer #1 · answered by bruhaha 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
For the same reason that we don't say, "firth" for first and "fourst" for fourth...It doesn't resonate well in the nasal cavity and would take two lifetimes to get accustomed-to.
2007-09-30 12:09:03 · answer #2 · answered by Beejee 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's how the language has developed. I do hope they don't change it, I'd have to learn to spell again. Judging by some stuff I see typed on here, (not yours), they have changed it all.
2007-09-30 11:58:34 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
its in the latin or the roots of a language
2007-09-30 13:31:37 · answer #4 · answered by Grand Phuba 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i do and far rest and near the rest
2007-09-30 11:17:41 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋